Tip:A–D to answerE for explanationV for videoS to reveal answer
The statement B⇒((∼A)∨B) is equivalent to:
- A.
A⇒(A⇔B)
- B.
A⇒((∼A)⇒B)
- C.
B⇒(A⇒B)
Correct Answer: B⇒((∼A)⇒B)
Explanation
Given: B⇒(∼A∨B)≡∼B∨(∼A∨B)≡(∼B∨B)∨∼A≡T∨∼A≡T (Tautology).
Check options:
-
(2) A⇒(A∨B)≡∼A∨A∨B≡T.
-
(3) B⇒(∼A∨B)≡∼B∨∼A∨B≡T.
-
(4) B⇒(A∨B)≡∼B∨A∨B≡T.
Explanation
Given: B⇒(∼A∨B)≡∼B∨(∼A∨B)≡(∼B∨B)∨∼A≡T∨∼A≡T (Tautology).
Check options:
-
(2) A⇒(A∨B)≡∼A∨A∨B≡T.
-
(3) B⇒(∼A∨B)≡∼B∨∼A∨B≡T.
-
(4) B⇒(A∨B)≡∼B∨A∨B≡T.
