Tip:A–D to answerE for explanationV for videoS to reveal answer
Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x)+f(π−x)=π2, ∀x∈R. Then ∫0πf′(x)sinxdx is equal to:
- A.
π2/2
(Correct Answer) - B.
π2
- C.
2π2
- D.
π2/4
Explanation
Given f(x)+f(π−x)=π2
Use property of definite integral
I=∫0πf(π−x)sin(π−x)dx
Add (1) and (2)
2I=∫0π[f(x)+f(π−x)]sinxdx
∴2I=∫0ππ2sinxdx
[∵∫sinxdx=−cosx+C]
I=π2
Explanation
Given f(x)+f(π−x)=π2
Use property of definite integral
I=∫0πf(π−x)sin(π−x)dx
Add (1) and (2)
2I=∫0π[f(x)+f(π−x)]sinxdx
∴2I=∫0ππ2sinxdx
[∵∫sinxdx=−cosx+C]
I=π2